Hello all.
I am not a chemist of any kind so my understanding of all of this is extremely basic. Please bear with me.
I have access to a lab where I can run samples on GC/MS. Three different amphetamine samples have yielded almost identical results with a small amphetamine peak and a large caffeine peak. I'm starting to suspect something is off here with regards to the ratios.
For one: based on the peaks, the ratio is always roughly 20/80% amp to caffeine. Ingesting 20mg of such a mixture should yield no effects, yet it does. Acetone washing also does not result in a massive loss.
It does not seem to matter whether the sample is injected as the (presumed) salt, or freebased first. How should I go about testing it again? I have pure anhydrous caffeine as well and I'm thinking this could be used as a calibration reference somehow before I run another sample but I wanted to rule out any other factors, such as certain expected behavior of both compounds under these conditions. Thanks!
I am not a chemist of any kind so my understanding of all of this is extremely basic. Please bear with me.
I have access to a lab where I can run samples on GC/MS. Three different amphetamine samples have yielded almost identical results with a small amphetamine peak and a large caffeine peak. I'm starting to suspect something is off here with regards to the ratios.
For one: based on the peaks, the ratio is always roughly 20/80% amp to caffeine. Ingesting 20mg of such a mixture should yield no effects, yet it does. Acetone washing also does not result in a massive loss.
It does not seem to matter whether the sample is injected as the (presumed) salt, or freebased first. How should I go about testing it again? I have pure anhydrous caffeine as well and I'm thinking this could be used as a calibration reference somehow before I run another sample but I wanted to rule out any other factors, such as certain expected behavior of both compounds under these conditions. Thanks!